Manor Preboards Module 4 Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• What is the typical urine output target for an adult to indicate adequate kidney perfusion?
• A CBC showing WBC 15,000/mm^3 with neutrophilia indicates which pattern?
• Which agent among the following is historically linked to teratogenic limb defects when used during pregnancy?
• Bleomycin is best described as which type of chemotherapeutic agent?
• Which option correctly identifies a pharmacologic strategy for DVT prophylaxis?
• Which practice most reduces infection risk for a patient with a central venous catheter?
• Define SIRS, sepsis, severe sepsis, and septic shock.
• A urinalysis shows nitrites and leukocyte esterase; what diagnosis is most likely?
• Which ADP receptor inhibitor binds reversibly to their receptor?
• What does the RACE acronym stand for in fire safety, and what is the nurse's role?
• Warfarin inhibits VKORC1, reducing gamma-carboxylation of glutamate residues in certain coagulation factors. Which factors are affected?
• What infection control precautions are required for suspected active tuberculosis?
• Which process describes the movement of a drug from the site of administration into the systemic circulation?
• What are essential components of sepsis early management, including timeframes?
• Which symptom most suggests superior vena cava (SVC) syndrome?
• Patient MOLN arrives at the hospital and complains of mild gastrointestinal upset. Later, it was found to be caused by APAP poisoning. What is the antidote of choice for APAP poisoning?
• Which drug is a reversible non-selective blocker of α adrenoreceptors and is used in pheochromocytoma?
• Etanercept is a TNF-α inhibitor used in autoimmune diseases. Which option correctly identifies its target?
• Which drug is a protease inhibitor?
• Which laxative ingredient was removed from the market due to concerns about cardiac toxicity?
• Which statements regarding thyroid hormones are not correct?
• Tranexamic acid is a synthetic analog of which amino acid?
• In the event of a fire, which action should the nurse perform first?
• Desmopressin is best described as a selective agonist for which vasopressin receptor?
• True about active transport of the drug across a membrane except
• Which option correctly lists the four phases of wound healing and includes a nursing intervention to promote healing?
• Which of the following best describes a method to monitor for peripheral ischemia during vasopressor therapy?
• Advantages of Acetaminophen over Aspirin include the following except
• What are the main phases of wound healing, and name one nursing action to support healing?
• Which statements about thyroid hormones are true?
• Which of these is a nucleotide-analog reverse transcriptase inhibitor?
• For severe symptomatic hyponatremia due to SIADH, what is a physician-guided intervention?
• An antiviral drug that was found to have antiparkinsonism properties by chance is which of the following?
• Which statement is true about acetaminophen when compared with aspirin?
• What is the normal mean arterial pressure (MAP) range, and what MAP is generally targeted in critically ill patients to ensure organ perfusion?
• Pamidronate sodium is indicated for the treatment of
• Ethyl alcohol is given in cases of ethylene glycol or methanol poisoning because it blocks the formation of the toxic metabolites.
• Which statement about the seven rights of medication administration is accurate?
• In hyponatremia management, why is careful monitoring emphasized when using hypertonic saline?
• The most stable polymorph tends to have what dissolution characteristic?
• Which of the following is used in Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder?
• What is the most reliable method to confirm nasogastric tube placement before feeding?
• Which of the following drugs works by inhibiting HIV integrase, thereby preventing DNA transfer from the viral genome?
• Which antidote - drug pair is incorrect?
• Vesamicol inhibits transmitter storage by blocking which transporter?
• Which of the following is an endogenous opioid?
• Which statement best describes the typical mean arterial pressure (MAP) target during vasopressor titration?
• During a code, what is the recommended approach to using an AED?
• Which statement best describes the role of a sterile barrier during an invasive procedure?
• Distinguish macrocytic and microcytic anemia and give a common cause for each.
• What is the mechanism of action of Amiodarone?
• Which description best matches the signs of a tension pneumothorax and its initial management?
• Alkalinizing the urine with sodium bicarbonate is useful in the treatment of poisoning with I. ASA II. Salicylates III. Barbiturates IV. Morphine
• True about drug distribution except
• Which action is appropriate if norepinephrine extravasation is suspected at the IV site?
• Which cellular transporters decrease drug absorption and promote drug efflux across biological barriers?
• All these drugs work as microtubule inhibitors except which?
• Cyanogenic foods release hydrogen cyanide upon contact with stomach acid. Which mechanism describes this release?
• Which of the following is a common non-pharmacologic method for DVT prophylaxis?
• What is the most important associated with Pyrazolone derivatives like Phenylbutazone which necessitated the withdrawal of a number of these drugs from the market?
• Glutathione conjugation belongs to which phase of metabolism according to the source?
• Repaglinide is believed to work by which action?
• List common signs of dehydration and two nursing interventions to correct fluid deficit.
• Which drug has keratolytic action and reduces sebum production by up to 90 percent?
• Which strategy best supports effective patient education in chronic disease management?
• In SIADH with hyponatremia, what is the underlying mechanism and a typical nursing consideration?
• Osmotic laxatives are described as indigestible and hydrophilic colloids that absorb water, forming a bulky, emollient gel that distends the colon and promotes peristalsis.
• A given adrenergic agent induces lipolysis, release of renin, and increases myocardial contractility. These effects are attributed to which receptor type?
• Which practice best aligns with preventing delirium in hospitalized older adults?
• Which statement about septic shock is accurate?
• Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) presents with which typical laboratory findings?
• What is the mechanism of action of beta-blockers and one common adverse effect to watch for?
• How are pressure ulcers staged, and what is one nursing intervention to prevent them?
• Conscious patient with hypoglycemia should be given what initial treatment, and how much?
• What is the primary purpose of a Foley catheter and what common complication do nurses try to prevent?
• Which antibacterial drug class does not work by inhibiting protein synthesis?
• In evaluating the adequacy of perfusion while on vasopressor therapy, which indicator is most directly tied to tissue perfusion?
• A hyponatremia patient with confusion and seizures is treated in the ICU with what electrolyte-focused approach?
• What are core principles of sterile technique for invasive procedures?
• Which antibacterial drug class is not used primarily to inhibit protein synthesis?
• Which of the following combinations of drug and therapeutic use is correctly matched?
• Angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs) are less likely to cause angioedema and cough than ACE inhibitors because
• Edema in congestive heart failure occurs due to which mechanism, and which diuretic is commonly used to manage it?
• In atrial fibrillation, what is the target INR range for most patients taking warfarin to reduce stroke risk?
• Orexigenic drugs, which include corticosteroids and many antipsychotics, have what effect?
• Dantrolene can be used to treat malignant hyperthermia owing to its action on calcium release. Which option lists the correct drug?
• NAPQI is a metabolite produced in small amounts and detoxified in the liver; under conditions such as acetaminophen poisoning when detoxification is insufficient, it causes severe liver damage. What does NAPQI stand for?
• Also known as drug release; delivery of the active ingredient from a dosage form into solution is called?
• Wilson's disease is a rare genetic disorder characterized by failure to export which metal into bile?
• Which agent is a relatively selective vasopressin V2 receptor agonist used in pituitary diabetes insipidus and pediatric primary nocturnal enuresis?
• In the emergency setting, how is anaphylaxis managed?
• This drug can cause Aluminum toxicity in patients with renal failure. Which drug is it?
• During vasopressor therapy, which lab trend is most useful to gauge perfusion?
• Which wound-healing phase is characterized by new tissue formation and collagen deposition?
• What are typical signs of a postoperative pulmonary embolism and the immediate actions?
• The termination of heparin activity by Protamine sulfate is the result of
• Which statement is true about MCV in macrocytic anemia?
• Alpha-1-acid glycoprotein (AAGP) binds primarily which type of drugs?
• Using the Holliday-Segar method, what is the daily maintenance fluid requirement for a 12-kg child?
• Leflunomide inhibits which enzyme to exert its effects?
• Which drug is a thiazolidinedione (PPAR gamma agonist) used in type 2 diabetes?
• Name at least four clinical signs that may indicate increased intracranial pressure (ICP).
• Metronidazole is effective against these types of organisms except
• Which statement correctly describes a valid approach to pharmacologic prophylaxis for DVT?
• Which of the following best describes the classification of enkephalin?
• Which statement about absorption is NOT true, given the design of drugs for systemic versus local activity and extended-release products?
• True about vesicular transport
• These drug - adverse effect pairs are incorrect except
• Guanfacine and Guanabenz are primarily agonists at which receptors?
• Under acetaminophen poisoning, the not-detoxified metabolite NAPQI causes damage to which organ?
• Cell cycle-specific chemotherapeutic drugs exert their action on cells traversing the cell cycle. Which of the following is not a cell cycle-specific chemotherapeutic drug?
• Differentiate Broca's aphasia from Wernicke's aphasia, and provide one communication strategy for patients with Broca's aphasia?
• Which substance is commonly used as an example of zero-order elimination?
• Which of the following compounds is correctly matched with one of its therapeutic uses? I. Raloxifene: Advanced breast cancer II. Propylthiouracil : Hypothyroidism III. Finasteride: BPH IV. Metformin: PCOS
• A patient requires 1000 mL over 8 hours. The IV set has 20 gtt/mL. What is the required drops per minute?
• Anakinra is used in rheumatoid arthritis and works by which mechanism?
• What clinical signs indicate hypovolemic shock and what is the initial management?
• Leflunomide’s mechanism involves inhibition of which enzyme, leading to suppression of pyrimidine synthesis?
• Stimulation of β-adrenoreceptor, a G-protein-linked receptor involves generation of secondary messenger/s known as
• Tetracycline may accumulate in bone because of which interaction?
• Which of the following is an NNRTI?
• The interaction between grapefruit juice and certain antihistamines leading to cardiotoxicity is explained by inhibition of which enzyme?
• Phenytoin is effective for the treatment of all of the following types of seizures except
• What is a reasonable daily protein intake to support wound healing in a hospitalized adult?
• Which of the following aminoglycosides are the most nephrotoxic?
• Which set of signs constitutes Cushing's triad associated with increased intracranial pressure?
• During a code blue, list the nurse's key responsibilities.
• Which term refers to the reduction of microbial load on an inanimate surface to a level acceptable for public health purposes?
• In the emergency management of anaphylaxis, which statement is most appropriate?
• Methylphenidate and dextroamphetamine are centrally-acting sympathomimetics which may be used in which of the following conditions?
• Which hypoglycemic agent is contraindicated in the elderly due to a long half-life of approximately 32 hours?
• What is the most toxic β-blocker?
• Macrocytic anemia is most commonly associated with deficiency of which vitamins?
• This drug is a ketone prodrug resembling Naproxen in structure and is converted into an acetic acid derivative in the body. It is the only non-acid NSAID in current use.
• Cromolyn sodium acts by
• Which tissue is NOT a location of the glucose transporter described as regulating insulin release and glucose homeostasis?
• Lesions characterized by expansive growth, frequently exhibiting slow rates of proliferation that do not invade surrounding tissues
• What is the immediate nursing action when a transfusion reaction is suspected?
• In diabetic ketoacidosis, which of the following combinations is typical?
• Repaglinide is believed to work by
• Metabolic food reactions differ from other adverse reactions because toxicity occurs only when the food is eaten in excess and improperly prepared. Lima beans and related seeds cause cyanosis by which mechanism?
• Vitamin K–dependent gamma-carboxylation is required for which coagulation factors?
• Which of the following agents is not an example of an extended-spectrum penicillin?
• Which statement about physicochemical factors altering the biological performance of drugs is correct?
• Which statement best describes a comprehensive approach to deep vein thrombosis (DVT) prophylaxis in hospitalized patients?
• In SIADH with hyponatremia, what is a common nursing intervention?
• Pamidronate sodium is indicated for the treatment of Paget's disease.
• Which agent was linked to a large increase in newborns with amelia or phocomelia in West Germany around 1960, along with other congenital anomalies?
• Which antibacterial drug increases the risk of developing serotonin syndrome?
• Carbon monoxide exerts its toxic effects primarily by binding to which molecule?
• Which drug–process pair is incorrect?
• This drug works as a competitive reversible inhibitor of DPP-4, reducing enzymatic inactivation of the incretin hormone, GLP-1.
• Which of the following is essential to include in a patient handoff or bedside report?
• Which ECG finding is classically associated with hypokalemia?
• Which local anesthetic is a para-aminobenzoic acid (PABA) derivative?
• Which of the following agents is most useful for the management of nephrolithiasis due to idiopathic hypercalciuria?
• What is the primary purpose of daily assessment of line necessity in patients with a central venous catheter?
• ABG interpretation: pH 7.25, PaCO2 32 mmHg, HCO3- 14 mEq/L. What is the acid-base disorder and compensation status?
• Enkephalin is an example of which type of molecule?
• Which drug is a DPP-4 inhibitor used to treat type 2 diabetes?
• Which of the following is NOT part of the seven rights of medication administration?
• When initiating enteral feeding via a nasogastric tube, which action is essential to prevent misplacement before starting feeds?
• Which statement about ARBs is correct?
• Which statement best describes isotonic, hypotonic, and hypertonic intravenous fluids, with one example each and where they act in body compartments?
• Which statements about drug protein binding are true?
• Mercapturic acid formation from glutathione conjugates in the body involves processing in which organ?
• Which of the following is correct?
• In early sepsis management, which biomarker is commonly measured to assess tissue perfusion?
• Leucovorin is used as an antidote for toxicity of which agent?
• This drug antagonizes the RYR1 receptors of the sarcoplasmic reticulum, decreasing calcium release and is used to treat malignant hyperthermia.
• Etanercept is a biologic agent that functions by inhibiting which target?
• Amiodarone prolongs the cardiac action potential by blocking which ion channels?
• Which receptor types are Gq protein-coupled?
• Which statement correctly differentiates zero-order from first-order drug elimination?
• In diabetic ketoacidosis, how does potassium move with insulin therapy, and what monitoring is essential?
• Finasteride is used to treat which condition?
• Which property explains why Salmeterol is preferred over Isoproterenol for long-term asthma control?
• For nephrolithiasis due to idiopathic hypercalciuria, which diuretic reduces urinary calcium excretion?
• Metformin is commonly used for PCOS.
• Conjugation of xenobiotics with glutathione forms glutathione conjugates. These conjugates can be effluxed into bile and blood and are converted to mercapturic acid in the kidney. In which phase of metabolism does this process belong?
• Which adverse effects of opioids require monitoring in hospitalized patients?
• Why is troponin elevation a key diagnostic marker in acute coronary syndrome?
• Astemizole and Terfenadine have been withdrawn due to intrinsic cardiotoxicity. The interaction risk with grapefruit juice or erythromycin is explained by which mechanism?
• Which of the following drugs is not an SSRI?
• Which statements about drug protein binding are true?
• Which statement about laxatives is false?
• After peroral administration, drugs generally are absorbed best from the
• Which metal accumulates in Wilson's disease due to defective export into bile?
• Long-term use of proton-pump inhibitors is linked to which electrolyte disturbance?
• Which biotransformation process matures by about 2 months after birth, with immature activity linked to accumulation of a toxic acetaminophen metabolite?
• Draw water into the urine, without interfering with ion secretion or absorption in the kidney
• Which glucose transporter is responsible for the regulation of insulin release and glucose homeostasis, with locations in the liver, kidney, and pancreatic beta cells?
• An advantage of Salmeterol over Isoproterenol in the treatment of bronchial asthma is that Salmeterol:
• A body mass index (BMI) of 29.7 is interpreted as which category?